ויאמר…וראיתן על האבנים, He said: "look at the birthstool, etc." Why did Pharaoh have to instruct the midwives to look at the birthstool? Was it not enough to instruct them to kill male babies? It is true that our sages in Sotah 11 say that Pharaoh gave the midwives a sign which would alert them to the approaching birth of a male baby i.e. if the head of the baby was facing downwards, whereas if the head faced upwards this was an indication that a baby girl was about to be born. I have never understood why the midwives would need to be told such a sign [After all they were supposed to be the experts, not Pharaoh. Ed.]. Another thing we have to know is why Pharaoh did not decree death on all Jewish babies. It is most unlikely that he was motivated by a desire to ensure that some Jews would survive. Why did he not command the midwives simply: "kill them," without suggesting that they do something first which would eventually result in the death of these boy babies? What is the precise meaning of "If it turns out to be a daughter, let her live?" If Pharaoh himself had only decreed death on the males, why would the midwives need to be told to let the girls live? Surely midwives would not murder voluntarily!
We must assume that Pharaoh wanted to ensure that his plan would succeed. Which expectant mother would expose her unborn child to be killed by inviting the midwife? Pharaoh therefore told the midwives to behave in a manner which could not arouse any suspicion. By having a look at the birthstool to determine if a girl or a boy was about to be born, they would be able to kill the baby prior to its being born and tell the mother that the baby had been stillborn. The midwives would announce this before the baby had left the mother's womb. How did the midwives know all this? This is where the sign mentioned in the Talmud comes in. Pharaoh told the midwives how to make sure beforehand. When he said והמתן אותו "and you shall kill it," the extra letter ו indicates that they should only kill after first having made sure that it was a male baby. The baby was to be killed before it could be heard at the moment of birth.
The words אם בת היא mean that Pharaoh was anxious to avoid having the mothers think that the midwives were implicated in murder; therefore as long as the mothers felt that some of their babies survived birth they would not grow suspicious of the midwives. Presumably the midwives were not even to reveal that the stillborn baby had been a boy. In this fashion suspicions could be long delayed.
Pharaoh displayed a double portion of shrewdness since it was also his objective to prevent the Jews from emigrating. As the proportion of females would increase they would be forced to look for Egyptian husbands due to the dearth of eligible Jewish males. Once the two peoples began to merge through intermarriage there was no longer any fear that they would try to emigrate. Moreover, from a mystical point of view, intermarriage results in holy souls becoming so intertwined with souls of impure origin that any eventual separation would become well nigh impossible. After all, our sages are on record in Vayikra Rabbah 32,5 that the Jewish people could not be redeemed from Egypt until 4 conditions existed, one of which was careful abstention from all kinds of incest and sexual licentiousness. Kabbalists interpret the words גן נעול in Song of Songs 4,12 as "chaste as a garden locked," i.e. that if the Jews had intermarried in Egypt they would never have been redeemed.
ותיראן המילדות את האלוקים, The midwives were G'd-fearing, etc." Why did the Torah repeat that: 1) "they did not do what the king had told them to do," 2) "they kept the children alive?" According to Sotah 11 they supplied food and water for these boy babies. If so, why had they not been doing this before the king's decree came into effect? Perhaps all the Torah wanted to tell us is that they did not stop to provide these services at their own expense. The Torah therefore would describe the level of the midwives' fear of G'd. They did what they could to keep these babies alive; they most certainly did not kill the babies.
It is also possible that as long as everything was normal they never even thought about providing food and water for the babies. Once Pharaoh had decreed that the boy babies should be killed, the midwives feared that if by chance one of those children should die they would be blamed for the death. They now began to provide food and water for these babies in order to deflect such suspicions. Perhaps this is the reason for the word את when the Torah describes the midwives as G'd-fearing. They also wanted to be seen as G'd-fearing in the eyes of man.
כאשר דבר, as he had said. The letter כ which precedes the word אשר is a Kaf hadimyon describing a comparison, a similarity. The Torah tells us that not only did the midwives not do what the king had ordered them to do, but that they did not even do anything similar to what the king had demanded of them. The Torah could also be telling us something about the general fate of Royal decrees. Normally, when a powerful king issues a decree it is observed by his subjects due to fear. As people notice that not every violation is followed by severe penalties, more and more people begin to ignore irksome decrees. In this instance the Torah tells us that the decree was not even observed when it was still new. The midwives לא עשו, never carried out, כאשר דבר, as soon as he had said it. The word כאשר may be understood as "as soon as," just as in Genesis 27,30: "as soon as Isaac finished speaking."
מדוע לא עשיתם…זתחיינן את הילדים? "Why did you not do…and you kept these children alive?" What did the king refer to when he asked the midwives: "why did you do, etc?" Their crime was what they had not done! Not killing the babies surely is not described as an activity! The king should have asked: "why did you not do etc.?" Furthermore, what did the king mean when he accused the midwives of keeping the children alive? If he referred to the fact that they supplied food and water, how did the midwives' answer satisfy him? Their answer would be equivalent to rebellion against the king's command!
Perhaps Pharaoh was not really sure that they had been supplying food to these babies as they certainly would not do this while other Egyptians were looking on. One could certainly not accuse any Israelites as reporting such a thing to the king. Basing itself on Exodus 3,22 where the Israelites were told 12 months before the Exodus that at that time women would "borrow" silver trinkets from their neighbours, Vayikra Rabbah 32,5 points out that not a single Israelite revealed this information to Pharaoh or to any other Egyptian. Israelites did not snitch on one another during that time. It must be assumed therefore that Egyptians did observe the midwives bringing victuals to the houses of pregnant Israelite women. These Egyptians also became aware that boy babies were being born and raised. Pharaoh therefore referred to the food the midwives were bringing to the pregnant mothers when he asked: "why did you do this?" Unless the midwives kept the boy babies alive, Pharaoh would have attributed their actions as designed to help the baby girls stay alive. Under the circumstances, i.e. the appearance of live baby boys, he had to assume that their existence was due to the midwives' action. Pharaoh simply used his powers of imagination. He had no proof of any sort that the midwives had contravened his orders.
כי לא כנשים המצריות העבריות, "the Hebrew women are unlike the Egyptian women, etc." Why did the midwives use such cumbersome language? All they had to say was לא כמצריות העבריות. Besides, how does their answer address Pharaoh's accusation that they supplied food to keep the babies alive? It appears that Pharaoh was satisfied with their answer! Another difficulty is the word וילדו; why did they not say ויולדות, "and they proceeded to give birth?"
The expression נשים מצריות mentioned by the midwives refers to the elite of the Egyptian women. The midwives explained to Pharaoh that the Hebrew women were superior even to the elite of the Egyptian women in that they either did not need the services of a midwife at all, or were חיות, knowledgeable in that art, and helped each other without reference to outside professionals.
Perhaps the midwives hinted that the Jewish women possessed a) the superior skills with which they were born, b) the skills possessed by the natural born Egyptian women which they had acquired during the years they had lived in Egypt. They combined the best skills of both categories of women. If Pharaoh wanted to know why they had not assisted in the births as emissaries of the king, the Hebrew women had always given birth already before the midwife could arrive; the Hebrew women had misled them concerning when a birth would be due. All of this is part of the meaning of their being חיות. The word וילדו means the birth had already taken place by the time the midwives arrived. If they had visited these expectant women bringing with them food and water it was in order to win these women's confidence so that when the time to give birth arrived they would trust them and let them assist. However, all this had been in vain. If, after finding that these women had already had their babies, the midwives would have taken the food away they would only have aroused suspicion that the food had not been intended as a friendly gift at all. In this manner the midwives satisfied Pharaoh while admitting that what the Egyptian women had reported to him was absolutely true, but the conclusions they had drawn did not fit the facts.
וייטב אלוקים למילדות, G'd dealt well with the midwives, etc. We are entitled to know what precisely were the favours G'd did for the midwives. Perhaps the verse alludes to the houses that are described in the next verse. If that were so, however, there would have been no point in interrupting this sequence by stating that "the people increased and became very powerful." It appears rather that the verse explains the cause of the increase in the numbers of Israelites. The very food and water which the midwives provided resulted in G'd dealing well with the midwives. G'd enabled the midwives to continue their economically expensive efforts to feed the many newly born babies. Had G'd not helped them economically, they would not have had the wherewithal to supply all that food which resulted in the increase of the numbers of Israelites. The Torah reports the reward G'd provided for the midwives themselves only in the next verse where we are told that He built houses for them.
The Torah may also have hinted that when G'd realised the degree of piety demonstrated by the midwives, He decided to reward them by providing them with unlimited opportunities to continue their good work. The word וייטב is followed by וירב העם to show cause and effect. The "good" G'd did for the midwives was that they saw their efforts rewarded by an increase in the Israelite population. Who knows if leaders such as Moshe and Aaron were not provided by G'd for Israel as a direct reward for the selfless efforts of Yocheved and Miriam (the two midwives)? From a mystical dimension, Moses is perceived as a soul embracing all of Israel, i.e. our souls are "branches" of Moses' soul as per Isaiah 63,11 where Moses is equated with G'd's people Israel.
According to Rashi who describes the "good" G'd did for the midwives as the houses G'd is reported to have provided for them as mentioned in the next verse, we could say that the Torah first had to mention that the people kept increasing as providing a caste of Priests as well as Royalty, would not make much sense unless there were a sufficient number of Israelites to warrant all this.
ויצו פרעה לכל עמו, Pharaoh commanded his entire nation, etc. Whereas originally Pharaoh's command to the midwives to kill new born boy babies was a secret deal between him and the midwives, something the Hebrew women did not know about, now, in view of the failure of that plan, he resorted to a public announcement; he believed that in view of the continued expansion of the Israelite population he would have popular support for such a draconian measure. An additional factor forcing Pharaoh's hand to go public with the decree to drown all boy babies may have been that according to astrologers Pharaoh foresaw that the redeemer of the Israelites would be born and would end his career prematurely due to water (Sanhedrin 101). Pharaoh mobilised every Egyptian to participate in this decree in order to precipitate this event.
The Torah says לאמור, i.e. not every Egyptian should personally commit such a murder but that he should tell the Hebrew parent to drown his child seeing it was a Royal decree. Pharaoh's interpretation of what the astrologers had told him was that Moses would find a premature death by water at the hand of an Israelite. This is why he insisted that the Israelites themselves kill the children. The fact that Yocheved herself exposed Moses to a watery death is proof that the Egyptians themselves did not drown the children.
It is also possible that the meaning of the word לאמור at this point is that only the neighbours of the Israelites were to be involved in this, not the entire population.
Some of our rabbis felt (Sotah 12) that Pharaoh commanded that all boy babies (Egyptian as well as Jewish) born on a certain day should be drowned as he believed that this was the day on which the Jewish redeemer was to be born. Such an exegesis is homiletics. The plain meaning is that the decree concerned only Jewish boy babies. Had it been in effect for only a single day, why did Yocheved feel she had to hide Moses for three months? Surely the decree was in effect for an indefinite period during the time Moses was born. The words לכל עמו simply mean that "his entire people be acquainted with this decree."
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